So, how does the interpretation of scripture and the teaching of the Church change? It does so slowly and after reasoned debated and discussion. It does so at the level it wants to. For example, what vestments (if any) is very much a local custom, but one that has theological implications. What music (if any) is used in worship is local. How much area or how many congregations as bishop should be responsible for is also a local function. Selection of clergy is local.
Morals, on the other hand, are not local. They are part of both the natural law and the revealed law. To change our teaching on morals would require a new understanding by the Church -or at least by the Anglican Communion.
This is indeed an important point. Do moral laws change over time or vary across cultures, or do they remain constant for all places and all times? Before answering that, though, I think it’s important to ask what exactly do we mean by “moral laws.” What makes a particular law “moral”? I’ve often seen people distinguish between “civic” and “moral” laws, but is that distinction actually present in the OT Law, or is it an interpretation placed over it? Would a Jew in Jesus’ time, for example, have considered dietary laws merely related to purity, or would there be a moral dimension to it? Could the distinction lie in one action being considered public and another private, but can we actually say that a particular activity is purely public or purely private?
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